squodge wrote:
But isn't your complaint similar to a guy walking into a casino, betting on a single number in roulette, and complaining that he's lost all his money?
The law of statistics says that, so long as the probability isn't zero, you will eventually get a hit if you're happy to keep playing.
Going at a rate of 40k per attempt(for simplicity), nam's efforts would equate to approx 6,200 attempts* (little more but i like to keep this simple).
a 1% chance would on average take 100 attempts to be successful, if we assumed he will get one in the next 100 attempts (or roughly 6300-1) it would be around a .0015% chance. Any roulette wheel that ran at that kind of rate would get promptly shut down by the authorities.
*Note, for the roulette analogy, comparing to 1 spin is a total fallacy, it should be compared to a lifetime of betting the same number that is generally expected to hit at a rate of approximately 39-1. Which at 6000 times would expect to have 150 "wins" or discoveries, so to complete the analogy it would be talking about winning 0 times instead of 150, which any mathematician would say is statistically significant (although not automatically conclusive).
Not only is Nam's question legitimate here, but it should be getting echoed a thousand times over. I don't expect to know the exact odds of something when Dan deliberately does not reveal them, but I also don't think it unreasonable to ask if the odds or better or worse then 1/5,000